CPC - Certified Professional Coder

CPC– Certified Professional Coder
CPC/ CCS-P Exam Training Program

A comprehensive Medical Coding and Billing Training for Success in CPC Exams
CPC Exam Trainingis provided to candidates for 150 hours covering all the topics required to pass the CPC exam conducted by AAPC
AAPC conducts CPC credential exam for Medical coders working in Physician office setting also known as Outpatient medical coding.

Nearly 65000 professionals are CPC certified and the count is increasing every month. Now all medical coding companies prefer only CPC certified coders. Certification is mandatory for quality oriented and profitable medical billing process.CPC certified coders earn 30% more their non-certified counterparts.
Advantages and Abilities of a CPC certified coder.
Training completely focused on CCA, CCS-P (AHIMA certified) and CPC (AAPC) certified
Complete awareness of ICD 10 CM coding guidelines, CPT rules, medical billing, compliance and insurance reimbursement process involved in Revenue Cycle Management.
Sound knowledge in medical terminologies related to anatomy, physiology, pathology, diagnostic and procedures.
Capable of updating the changes in the billing and coding rules.
Expertise in all specialities of medical coding like Anaesthesia, Evaluation and Management including ER/ED and Critical care, Surgery, Radiology, Pathology and Medicine.
Understanding of all modifiers and appending the correct modifierfor smooth transaction of the reimbursement process.
Capable of reviewing the medical records and accurately assigning medical codes for diagnoses, procedures and products used in hospital outpatient practices.
Join the CPC exam training program for step by step understanding of the coding topics and take plenty of mock tests to easily pass and get high scores in the exam and get CPC credential conducted by AAPC.

CPC Exam Training Program
CPC Exam Training Program

A comprehensive Medical Coding and Billing Training for Success in CPC/CCA Exams

CPC, Exam Training is provided to candidates for 126 hours of training and clearing the various test conducted in the training program. ACMC covers all topics in Anatomy, Physiology and Pathology and ICD-10 CM, CPT-4 and HCPCS Coding and in depth training is provided in ICD-10 CM coding guidelines and all specialties including Radiology, Pathology, Evaluation and Management (ER/ED/Critical care), Surgery, Anesthesia and Medicine Coding. ACMC training program is job oriented and useful for taking certification exams like CCA, and CPC provided by AHIMA and AAPC from USA.
Course Duration:   126 Hours (3 Hours per day – 42 classes)
Batches:                   Weekdays and Weekend Batch
Weekdays:               Monday to Thursday 3 hours from 10.00 AM to 1.00 PM or 04.00 PM to 7.00 PM and Saturday from 10.00 AM to 05.00 PM
Weekend:                 Saturday and Sunday 6 hours from 10.00 AM to 05.00 PM
Study Materials Included:
Anatomy, Physiology & Pathology Training Manual   -  Included
Advanced Certification in Medical Coding Training Manual-  Included
CPC Sample Exam Question Papers -  Included
CPC previous years Question paper with rationale and Answers -  Included
E&M Sample charts and coding scenarios for OP/IP/ER-ED – Included
Topics Covered:
Medical Terminology.
Complete Anatomy, Physiology, Pathology, Clinical tests and Surgical Procedures.
ICD-10 CM General Coding guidelines, conventions and coding for acute and chronic conditions.
ICD-10 CM Chapter Specific guidelines for Infection, HIV and Sepsis coding, Neoplasm and Hypertension coding, Pregnancy, Delivery, Trauma and aftercare coding
CPT-4 Procedure Coding and NCCI edits with Medical Billing Terminologies.
Radiology and Pathology Coding.
Evaluation and Management Coding, Surgery Coding and Anesthesia Coding
HIPAA Training
Revenue Cycle Management and CPC, CPC-A and sample question pattern
CPC sample question papers with hundreds of coding practice scenarios
Salient Features of CPC/ Training
Training completely focused on CCA, (AHIMA certified) and CPC (AAPC) certified
Comprehensive Training focused on Job Training and Placement.
Complete ICD-10 CM, CPT-4 and HCPCS training.
RCM training with HIPAA compliance.
Anatomy and Physiology training through plenty of videos.
Certification provided after successful completion of training
Training methodologies and Placement process is in par with ISO 9001:2008 certification standards.
Interview Training.
Placement assurance after certification.
CPC Exam Training is suitable for people planning to work in UAE, Australia, Canada.
CPC Exam Training  is preferred for those planning to take CPC, and CCA Certification
CPC Exam Training is preferred for those choosing Medical Coding Industry as a Long Term Career.
CPC Exam Trained candidates are Eligible for taking AHIMA and AAPC approved certification exams like CPC, CCA and . AAPC or AHIMA Certified Medical Coders have a great career opportunity in India, UAE, Philippines, Canada and various other countries.

Certified Professional Coders are always in high demand in all medical billing organisations in India and abroad.

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM SAMPLE QUESTIONS - 001

1. A surgeon started with a diagnostic thoracoscopy. During the same surgical session she completed a surgical thoracoscopy to control a hemorrhage. How would you report this procedure?

a. 32601

b. 32601, 32654-59

c. 32505

d. 32654

2. A patient is brought from an MVA to the ER with multiple fractured ribs, labored breathing, and complaints of chest pain and palpitations. In the ER the thoracic surgeon performs a tube thoracostomy with some relief of the patient’s most severe symptoms. Several tests are run and radiographs taken. What is the correct code?

A. 32100

B. 32555

C. 32554

D. 32551

3. A sinus endoscopy with tissue removal from the sphenoid sinus was performed. The correct CPT® code is:

A. 31287

B. 31288

C. 31235

D. 31050

4. Surgeon performed radical maxillary sinusotomy with removal of antrochoanal polyps, bilaterally. The correct CPT code is,

a) 31020-50

b) 31030-50

c) 31032-50

d) 31050-58

5. Patient with congenital cleft palate underwent rhinoplasty with columellar lengthening, including the septum and tip.

a) 30410

b) 30462-50

c) 30462

d) 30460-50

6. A patient with diagnosis of larynx fracture. The physician did operative laryngoscopy with removal of chicken bone fragment with the help of operating microscope.

a) 31531

b) 31531, 69990

c) 31531-22

d) 31530, 69990

7. A patient underwent single-lung transplant with cardiopulmonary bypass employed during the procedure.

a) 32852

b) 32854

c) 32853

d) 32851

8. Select the codes for exploration with a flexible fiberoptic bronchoscope with transbronchial lung biopsy and washing from a LUL mass and bronchial brushings from a RLL mass.

a) 31622, 31623-50, 31628-51

b) 31628, 31623-51

c) 31625

d) 31625-50

9. What is the CPT code(s) for a segmentectomy of the right lung and a wedge resection of the left lung due to bacterial infection?

a) 32484-50

b) 32505-LT, 32484-RT

c) 32440-RT, 32484-LT

d) 32486-RT, 32505-LT

10. A patient suffering from chronic inflammation of the maxillary sinus underwent a surgical endoscopic transnasal balloon dilation procedure to restore normal sinus function. During this procedure, maxillary antrostomy with removal of tissue was completed. How should you report these procedures?

a) 31295

b) 31267, 31295-59

c) 31295, 31256-59, 31267-59

d) 31297

11. Dr. Walters performed a subsequent thoracocentesis of the pleural cavity for aspiration with needle fluoroscopic guidance. Which codes should Dr. Walters report for his professional services?

a) 32554

b) 32555

c) 32556

d) 32557

12. Alicia is 20 months old and suffering from chronic inflammation of the trachea, which is causing difficulty in breathing. Dr. Marion inserted a planned incisional tracheal trachea for Alicia. This procedure was completed under general endotracheal anesthesia. The patient tolerated the procedure well and was returned to the recovery room in stable condition. How should Dr. Marion report this procedure?

a) 31610

b) 31601

c) 31830

d) 31615

13. A patient underwent a recurrent destruction of the laryngeal nerve for therapeutic purposes. How would you report this procedure?

a) 31595

b) 31599

c) 31595, 64681-59

d) 64642, 31599-59

14. A patient underwent anterior and posterior ethmoidectomy and sphenoidotomy with removal of polyp.

a) 31254, 31287

b) 31255, 31287

c) 31254, 31288

d) 31255, 31288

15. What would you report for anterior and posterior ethmoidectomy and sphenoidotomy with removal of polyps, with frontal sinus exploration and antrostomy?

a) 31255, 31256, 31287

b) 31255, 31256, 31288, 31276

c) 31254, 31256, 31287, 31276

d) 31255, 31256, 31276

16. The surgeon performs a high thoracotomy with resection of a single lung segment on a 57-year-old heavy smoker who had presented with a six-month history of right shoulder pain. An apical lung biopsy confirmed lung cancer. Code the encounter for surgery. 

a) 32100

b) 32484

c) 32503

d) 19271, 32551

17. Code a diagnostic bronchoscopy and a repeat therapeutic bronchoscopy with aspiration of tracheobronchial tree.

a) 31622, 31646-51

b) 31645

c) 31622, 31629-51

d) 31645, 31622-51

18. A 43-year-old female was seen in the emergency room with severe epistaxis. She said this is a common occurrence for her during the really cold dry months of winter. Extensive bilateral anterior cautery and packing is required to control the hemorrhage.

What code is reported for the procedure (do not code the E/M).

a) 30901-22

b) 30903-50

c) 30905

d) 30903

19. Patient’s nose was hit with a baseball during a high school baseball game. At that time reconstruction was performed, with local grafts. Patient returns now as an adult, discontent with bony prominence along the bony pyramid and flat look of the tip of the nose. Patient underwent major repair with osteotomies and nasal tip work. Choose the correct CPT code(s) to report the procedure(s) performed.

a) 30410

b) 30435

c) 30450

d) 30462

20. Patient underwent bilateral nasal/sinus diagnostic endoscopy. Finding the airway obstructed the physician fractures the middle turbinates and performs surgical endoscopy with the total ethmoidectomy and bilateral nasal septoplasty.Choose the correct CPT code(s) to report the

 procedure(s) performed.

a) 30930, 31255, 30520-51

b) 31255-50, 30520-50-51

c) 31231, 30130, 31255-50

d) 31255, 30520

21. A patient with recurrent pneumothoraces presents for chemopleurodesis. A thoracoscope is inserted between the ribs and into the pleural space between the parietal and pleural viscera 5g of sterile asbestos free talc was inserted. What is the correct code for this service?

a) 32650

b) 32560

c) 32601, 32560

d) 32650, 32560

22. Procedure codes related to the ethmoid sinus would be found under which of these CPT ranges?

a) 30000-30999

b) 31000 – 31299

c) 31300 – 31599

d) 31600 – 31899

23. Patient is 40-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. He is having some pulmonary insufficiency. Procedure: Bronchoscope was inserted through the accessory point on the end of the ET tube and was then advanced through the ET tube. The ET tube came pretty close down to the carina. We selectively intubated the right, main stem bronchus with the bronchoscope. There were some secretions here, and these were aspirated. We then advances this selectively into first the lower and then the middle and upper lobes. Secretions were present, more so in the middle and lower lobes. No mucous plug was identified. We then went into the left main stem and looked at the upper and lowerlobes.There was really not much in the way of secretions present. We did inject some saline and aspirated this out. We then removed the bronchoscope and put the patient back on the supplemental O2, we waited a few minutes. The oxygen level actually stayed pretty good during this time. We then reinserted the bronchoscope and went down to the right side again. We aspirated out all secretions and made sure everything was clear. We then removed the bronchoscope and pulled back on the ET tube about 1.5 cm. We then again placed the patient on supplemental oxygenation. Findings: No mucous plug was identified. Secretions were found mainly in the right lung and were aspirated. The left side looked pretty clear.

a) 31645, J98, V87.7XXA

b) 32654, J98.4, V87.7XXA

c) 31645, J98.4, V89.2XXA

d) 31646, J98, V89.2XXA

24. Performed: Fiberoptic bronchoscopy with brushings and cell washings.Procedure: The patient was already sedated, on a ventilator, and intubated; so his bronchoscopy was done through the ET tube. It was passed easily down to the carina. About 2 to 2.5 cm above the carina, we could see the trachea, which appeared good, as was the carina. In the right lung, however, had petechial ecchymotic areas scattered throughout the airways. The tissue was friable and swollen, but no mucous plugs were noted & all the airways were open ,just somewhat swollen .No abnormal secretions were noted

at all. Brushings were taken as well as washings including some with mucomyst to see whether we could get some distal mucous plug ,but nothing was returned. The specimens were sent to appropriate cytological & bacteriological studies.

a) 31622,31623-51

b) 31622

c) 31623

d) 31624

25. Roger had a rhinoplasty to correct damage caused by a broken nose. One year later he had a secondary rhinoplasty with major revisions. At the end of the second surgery the incisions were closed with a single layer technique. How would you report the second procedure?

a. 30450

b. 30450-78

c. 30420, 12014

d. 30430, 12014-59

RADIOLOGY SAMPLE QUESTIONS - 004

1.       A patient with left breast pain and a lump in the breast visits her physician. After examination, the physician orders a mammogram of the left breast. The mammography is performed using computer –aided detection software. What CPT code(s) is/are reported for the mammography?

a)                   77066

b)                   77067-52

c)                   77065

d)                   77067-52, 77067

2.       The use of ultrasound to examine the measure internal structures of the skull and to diagnose abnormalities and disease is echoencephalography. What is the code for echoencephalography and/or real time with image documentation, including A-mode encephalography as a secondary component where indicated?

a)                   76506

b)                   76510

c)                   76511

d)                   76512

3.       A patient receives complex radiation oncology treatment two times a day for three days. Which radiology code(s) is/are appropriate for this series of clinical management fractions?

a)                   77427, 77431 x 3

b)                   77427

c)                   77525 x 3, 77523 x 3

d)                   77427, 77431

4.       A DXA body composition study is performed on a patient. What CPT code(s) is/are reported for the scan?

a)                   77080, 77081

b)                   77080

c)                   77086

d)                   76499

5.       A male patient being treated for prostate cancer receives brachytherapy treatment. Nine radioactive seeds were interstitially placed within the prostate. What is the CPT code for the radiological component?

a)                   77799

b)                   77778

c)                   77772

d)                   77789

6.       Patient is in the orthopedic’s office with an injured ankle. The orthopaedic thinks it is only a sprained ankle, but decides to take an ankle X-ray to rule out a fracture. A two view ankle X-ray is taken in the physician’s office. The orthopaedic reviews the ankle X-ray and it is negative for a fracture. The report is placed in the medical records. How is the X-ray reported by the orthopaedic physician?

a)                   73600-26

b)                   73600-TC

c)                   73600-26-TC

d)                   73600

7.       A patient with osteoporosis reports to her physician’s office for a DXA bone density of her spine to monitor the severity of her condition. What is the correct CPT code for the DXA scan?

a)                   77080

b)                   77081

c)                   77086

d)                   77081-52

                 

8.       A patient presents to her physician 48 hours after an assault with right eye pain, nasal airway obstruction, and deformity. The physician orders an X-ray of the facial bones with a Waters view, Caldwell view and lateral view. What is the CPT code for the X-ray?

a)                   70486

b)                   70220

c)                   70150

d)                   70140

9.       A patient presents to the physician with stiffness and numbness in the necks, shoulders and arms. The physician orders an MRI of the cervical spine, with and without contrast, to rule out cervical spinal stenosis.What is/are the CPT code(s) for the MRI?

a)                   72020

b)                   72127

c)                   72141, 72142

d)                   72156

10.    Mammographic guidance for preoperative needle placement in the breast is coded as:

a)                   19281

b)                   77065

c)                   77067

d)                   77058

11.    SPECT bone scan is reported with which CPT code?

a)                   78315

b)                   78320

c)                   78350

d)                   78300

12.    A patient suffering from lower back pain presented to the emergency department. The physician performed a physical examination on the patient and ordered a lumbar myelography for a suspected herniated disc. The patient was sent to the hospital where the radiologist injected contrast material into the subarachnoid space through a percutaneously placed spinal needle. Films of the lumbar area were obtained. Select the appropriate codes for the radiologist facility services.

a)                   62304

b)                   62284, 72265

c)                   72265

d)                   62284

13.    A transperineal permanent Palladium-103 implantation of the prostate was performed on a 68-year-old patient with cancer of the prostate of complex nature. A postimplant cystogram was performed by the urologist and revealed the seeds to be in excellent position. The patient went to the recovery room in stable condition. Follow-up dosimetry is arranged. Code for the facility.

a)                   77799-26

b)                   77778-26-TC

c)                   77778

d)                   77799-TC

14.    During a physical examination, hepatomegaly is revealed. The physician orders an ultrasound of the liver to evaluate the hepatomegaly. What CPT code is reported?

a)                   74000

b)                   76705

c)                   74022

d)                   76700

15.     A patient 20-weeks pregnant with twins goes to her OB/GYN for an ultrasound to check the position of the both foetuses. What CPT code(s) is/are used for the ultrasound?

a)                   76805, 76810

b)                   76816

c)                   76816, 76810

d)                   76815

16.    A complete B-scan ultrasound without duplex Doppler of the kidney is performed in the physician’s office on a patient following a kidney transplant. What is the CPT code for the ultrasound?

a)                   76705

b)                   76775

c)                   76776

d)                   76811

17.    Select the appropriate code for a computerized axial tomography of the lumbar spine with contrast.

a)                   72132

b)                   72133

c)                   72129

d)                   72126

18.    A 12-year, old child comes in for a scoliosis (congenital) film; erect, to evaluate the condition and her increasing thoracic back pain. The exam is accomplished in the hospital’s radiology department and read by the hospital employed radiologist. Provide the CPT and ICD 10 CM. codes for the exam.

a.        72082;M41.20, M54.6

b.       72020;R51, R07.0

c.        72081;Q67.5, M54.6

d.       72072;M41.20, M54.6

19.    An ophthalmologist injects contrast material into the lacrimal duct for a dacryocystography using hospital equipment and also performs the radiological supervision and interpretation. Which CPT code and modifier would you report for the radiological supervision and interpretation?

a.        68850, 70170, 26, indicating the professional component only

b.       68850, 70170, indicating the global service

c.        70120, TC, indicating the technical service

d.       70110, 26, TC, indicating the technical and professional components were provided separately

20.    The physician performs a bilateral screening mammography study of each breast on a 50-year-old female. Which is the correct CPT for this service?

a.        77067-26

b.       77066

c.        77067

d.       00202

21.    A CT study of the cervical spine (C2-C4) was performed with IV contrast in the hospital outpatient radiology department. How should the services be reported?

a)                   70492

b)                   72126

c)                   72125

d)                   70491

22.    A patient received 32 radiation oncology treatments. How should this series of treatment sessions be coded?

a)                   77427 x 6, 77431

b)                   77427 x 6

c)                   77427 x 7

d)                   77427 x 6, 77431 x 2

23.    The patient reports to the clinic with a chronic sinus infection and headache. PA, lateral, and oblique views are taken of the sinuses at the clinic’s radiology department for review by the clinic’s radiologist. Provide the CPT & ICD-10-CM codes.

a.        70210; R09.3, J32.9

b.       70220;R51, J32.9

c.        70150;R09.3,J34.89

d.       70250; R51, J34.89

24.    A patient with coronary artery disease is seen in the OR for arterial bypass graft. The physician performs an epiaortic ultrasound during this operation. What is the correct CPT radiology and.ICD.10 CM code for this scenario?

a.        76937; I25.10

b.       76999; I25.810

c.        76770; I25.810

d.       76998; I25.10

25.    What X-ray projection enters the front of the body and exits through the back of the body with the patient lying down on the back?

a)                   AP

b)                   PA

c)                   Lateral

d)                   Oblique

26.    Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections?

a)                   Sagittal

b)                   Axial

c)                   Transverse

d)                   Coronal

27.    A patient arrives at the urgent care facility with a swollen ankle.  Anteroposterior and lateral view X-rays of the ankle are taken to determine whether the patient has a fractured ankle.  What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 73610

b. 73600 x 2

c. 73600

d. 73600, 73610

28.    A contrast radiograph of the salivary glands and ducts is performed, resulting in diagnosis of salivary fistula. What are the CPT and ICD-10-CM codes for the supervision and interpretation of this procedure?

a)                   70380-26, K11.5

b)                   70380-26, K11.4

c)                   70390-26, K11.5

d)                   70390-26, K11.4               

29.    CT images of the abdomen and pelvis were obtained without IV contrast, as a follow up to a splenic injury. What is/are the CPT code(s) for the CT scan?

a)                   74010

b)                   72170

c)                   74176

d)                   74170, 72194

30.    What is the code for the test (pyelography) in which contrast is injected into a vein and the kidneys and filmed over a 30 to 60 minute period at intervals of one, five, 10, 15, and 30 minutes?

a.        74400

b.       74410

c.        74430

d.       74455

31.    The axial plane divides the body into what sections?

a)                   Left and Right

b)                   Posterior and Anterior

c)                   Front and Back

d)                   Superior and Inferior

32.    What position is the body placed in when it is in an oblique position?

a)                   Lying on the back, face up

b)                   Lying down, face down

c)                   At an angle, neither frontal nor lateral

d)                   Lying on the side