Anesthesia -II
1.
An anesthesiologist administers anesthesia for
a male patient prior to the surgeon performing a total hip replacement. The
patient is 75 years old and suffers from mild hypertension. How should you code
the anesthesia services?
a.
01214, 99100-59
b.
01214-47
c.
01214-P2, 99100
d.
01214-P3
2.
This is the anesthesia formula:
a.B + M + P
b.
B + P + M
c. B
+ T + M
d.
B + T + N
3.
A 38-week-pregnant woman presents to the
hospital in labor. She is dilated four centimeters, is 50 percent effaced, and
wants to have the baby vaginally. The woman is given an epidural for the
pain.Twenty hours later she is still only dilated to six centimeters. The
physician decides that a cesarean delivery is now necessary. She is taken to
the OR, given anesthesia for the cesarean, and delivers a healthy baby boy.
Which CPT code(s) should be reported for the anesthesia administered?
a.
01960,
b.
01960, 01961
c.
01967, 01968
d.
01968,
4.
What is the basis of the anesthesia
time reporting period for multiple surgical procedures?
a.
The average of the combined anesthesia
times for each procedure (e.g., the anesthesia time of four procedures added
together divided by 4)
b.
The highest anesthesia time of the
procedures performed (e.g., 3 procedures with respective anesthesia times of 30
minutes, 45 minutes and 72 minutes for a reporting time of 72 minutes)
c.
The combined total for all procedures
(e.g., three procedures with respective anesthesia times of 45 minutes, 60
minutes and 90 minutes for a reporting time of 195 minutes)
d.
The anesthesia times for the most
complex procedures performed, although the procedures may take less time than
other procedures in the surgical encounter.
5.
Which of the following codes are not
reported when conscious (moderate) sedation is performed in the non facility
setting by a second physician?
a.
01990-01992
b.
99100-99140
c.
99151-99153
d.
99155-99157
6.
When billing anesthesia which of the
different types of modifiers listed below must always be appended?
a.
Procedural change modifiers
b.
Physical status modifiers
c.
Qualifying circumstance modifiers
d.
HCPCS level II modifiers
7.
Which type of anesthesia is used to
manage postoperative pain?
a.
General anesthesia
b.
patient-controlled anesthesia
c.
local block
d.
conscious sedation
8.
A cardiologist performs a pacemaker
insertion with transvenous electrodes into the patient’s right atrium and
ventricle in an ambulatory surgery center. The patient is a 50-year-old male
with severe coronary artery disease. A different physician administers moderate
sedation for this procedure. The intraservice time was 45 minutes. What are the
correct CPT code(s) reported by the physician administering the anesthesia?
a.
99156-P3, 99157-P3
b.
33208, 99156-P3, 99157-P3
c.
Not separately reported
d.
99156, 99157
9.
The anesthesiologist performs an
axillary block for postoperative pain management. The patient receives general
anesthesia for a carpal tunnel release. What are the appropriate codes?
a.01810,
b.
01810, 64417
c. 01810,
64417-59
d.
01830, 64417-59
10. A
42-year-old with renal pelvis cancer receives general anesthesia for a
laparoscopic radical nephrectomy. The patient has controlled type II diabetes
otherwise no other co-morbidities. What is the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM code
for the anesthesia services?
a.00860-P1, C64.9,
E11.9
b.
00840-P3, C65.9, E11.9
c. 00862-P2, C65.9, E11.9
d.
00868-P2, C79.00, E11.9
11. Why should the add-on code 99100 for
qualifying circumstances not be reported with the following codes: 00326,
00561, 00834, and 00836?
a.
Age of the patient is not a factor
with any anesthesia codes or add-on codes
b.
Age of the patient as older than 70
years is part of the code; therefore, it does not require the add-on code
c.
Age of child as older than 1 year is
part of the code; therefore, it does not require the add-on code
d.
Age of child as younger than 1 year is
part of the code; therefore, it does not require the add-on code
12. A patient underwent drainage of a pelvic
abscess via transvaginal approach. The patient was under moderate sedation for
the procedure, which was provided by the same operating physician. The intraservice
time was clocked at 45 minutes. How should the sedation services be reported
for this procedure?
a.
58820, 00940
b.
00940-P2
c.
58820
d.
58820-P2
13. Dr. Burns, a surgeon, provided regional
anesthesia and completed an exploration for postoperative hemorrhage in the
neck on a 55-year-old patient with moderate cardiovascular disease. How would
Dr. Burns report his services for this case?
a.
00350-P2, 35800
b.
35800-47
c.
00350-P2
d.
00350-47
14. According to the anesthesia guidelines, what
forms of monitoring are not included or bundled with anesthesia services?
a.
Intra-arterial
b.
Central venous
c.
Swan-Ganz
d.
All of the above
15. A healthy 11-month-old patient with bilateral
cleft lip and palate undergoes surgery. The surgeon performs a bilateral cleft
lip repair, single stage. Code the anesthesia service.
a.00170-P1, 99100
b.
00102-P1
c. 00102-P1, 99100
d.
00170-P1
16. Dr. Will, an anesthesiologist, provided three
days of hospital management for epidural continuous drug administration. These
services were performed after insertion of the epidural catheter. How should Dr.
Will report these days of care?
a.
01996-P1 x 3
b.
01996,
c.
64999-P1
d.
64999,
17. A healthy 45-year-old is having a needle
thyroid biopsy. The anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for surgery
at 0900. The surgery begins at 0915 and ends at 0945. The anesthesiologist
turns over the care of the patient to the recovery room nurse at 1000. What is
the appropriate anesthesia code and what is the anesthesia time?
a.00320, one hour
b.
00320, 45 minutes
c. 00322, 45 minutes
d.
00322, one hour
18. A patient with a third-degree burn of 54% of
his body is being treated under anesthesia for excision, debridement, and
extensive skin grafting. The patient’s condition is listed as severe, and he is
not expected to survive without the operation. The operation is further
complicated by the emergency condition of the patient, and delaying this
procedure could lead to loss of body parts. How should the anesthesiologist report
her services with this procedure?
a.
01952-P5, 01953-P5 x 4, 99140
b.
01952-P5, 01953-P5
c.
01951, 01952, 01953 x 4
d.
01951, 01952, 01953 x 5, 99140-51
19. Anesthesia service for a pneumocentesis for
lung aspiration, 32420.
a.00522
b.
00500
c. 00520
d.
00524
20. When
a physician reduces sensation in a specific local area of the body, what type
of anesthesia does he or she render?
a.
Digital block
b.
Local infiltration
c.
Topical
d.
General
21. Using anesthesia procedure codes
(00100-01999), code general anesthesia for repair of a ruptured aortic aneurysm
graft. The patient was noted to have severe systemic disease at the time of
anesthesia, and a pump oxygenator was used during the procedure.
a.
00566-P3
b.
00563-P3
c.
00562-P3
d.
00563 –P2
22. The
patient a five month old child was rushed to the hospital for emergency repair
of a strangulated, recurrent ventral hernia. Code the hernia and the anesthesia
for repair.
a.
49566, 00834, 99140
b.
49566, 00832, 99140, 99100
c.
49566, 00830, 99140, 99100
d.
49566, 00834, 99140, 99100
23. Anesthesia
is performed for a laryngoplasty with open reduction of fracture of a 45 day
old infant. Because of the child’s age and small size, the procedure took more
time than on older child.
a.
31584, 00326
b.
31584, 00326, 99100
c.
31584, 00326-22
d.
31584, 00320, 99100
24. Which of the following three anesthesia types
are considered “regional” anesthesia? (Choose three)
a.
Nerve root injections
b.
Caudals
c.
CPC code 00102
d.
Bier blocks
25. Code
for the anesthesia portion of both the harvesting and the moribund (near-death)
recipient of a liver.
a.
01990, 00796
b.
01990-P6, 00796-P5
c.
00794, 01190
d. 01199-P5, 00794-P6
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